1. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a process used to:
A) Increase industrial growth
B) Predict environmental impacts of proposed projects
C) Eliminate all development projects
D) Approve only forest projects
Answer: B) Predict environmental impacts of proposed projects
Explanation: EIA assesses potential positive/negative impacts before clearance.
2. In India, EIA became mandatory under:
A) Forest Act, 1980
B) Water Act, 1974
C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
D) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
Answer: C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Explanation: EPA 1986 empowered the government to mandate EIAs for development projects.
3. Which of the following is NOT a step in the EIA process?
A) Screening
B) Scoping
C) Monitoring
D) Advertisi
Answer: D) Advertising
Explanation: Steps include screening, scoping, baseline study, impact analysis, mitigation, monitoring.
4. Screening in EIA refers to:
A) Checking air pollution levels
B) Determining whether a project requires EIA
C) Screening movies for awareness
D) Identifying endangered species
Answer: B) Determining whether a project requires EIA
Explanation: Screening decides if a project falls under EIA regulations.
5. Which organization issues Environmental Clearance (EC) in India?
A) State Pollution Control Board
B) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change (MoEFCC)
C) Forest Department
D) National Green Tribunal
Answer: B) MoEFCC
Explanation: The MoEFCC (and SEIAAs at state level) grant environmental clearance.
6. Public hearing in EIA ensures:
A) Confidential project approval
B) Community participation and transparency
C) Only government review
D) Industrial monopoly
Answer: B) Community participation and transparency
Explanation: Public hearings allow local communities to raise concerns before project approval.
7. Strategic Environmental Assessment (SEA) is applied at:
A) Project level only
B) Policy and plan level
C) Household level
D) Village council level
Answer: B) Policy and plan level
Explanation: SEA evaluates environmental consequences of policies and plans.
8. Cumulative Impact Assessment considers:
A) Only one project
B) Combined impacts of multiple projects in a region
C) Only air pollution
D) Only social impacts
Answer: B) Combined impacts of multiple projects in a region
Explanation: It studies total regional impacts rather than isolated projects.
9. The first country to introduce mandatory EIA was:
A) USA
B) India
C) UK
D) Japan
Answer: A) USA
Explanation: NEPA (1970) in the USA made EIA compulsory.
10. Cost-Benefit Analysis in EIA evaluates:
A) Political benefits
B) Economic costs vs environmental/social benefits
C) Only company profit
D) Only forest loss
Answer: B) Economic costs vs environmental/social benefits
Explanation: It balances project feasibility against environmental impacts.
11. Life Cycle Assessment (LCA) is used to:
A) Study only end-of-life disposal
B) Assess environmental impacts of a product from cradle to grave
C) Analyze only air emissions
D) Evaluate only water pollution
Answer: B) Assess environmental impacts of a product from cradle to grave
Explanation: LCA covers extraction, production, use, and disposal phases.
12. EMP in EIA stands for:
A) Environmental Management Plan
B) Environmental Mapping Program
C) Eco Monitoring Project
D) Environment Mitigation Plan
Answer: A) Environmental Management Plan
Explanation: EMP outlines mitigation, monitoring, and management measures.
13. Which of the following tools is used in EIA?
A) Checklists
B) Matrices
C) Simulation models
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: Various tools are applied to predict and analyze impacts.
14. Carrying Capacity Analysis in EIA means:
A) Project’s economic potential
B) Maximum population or activity an environment can sustain
C) Maximum number of trucks carrying waste
D) Industrial capacity
Answer: B) Maximum population or activity an environment can sustain
Explanation: It helps avoid overexploitation of resources.
15. Rapid EIA differs from comprehensive EIA by:
A) Excluding public participation
B) Using shorter data collection (one season only)
C) Excluding cost-benefit analysis
D) Being industry-friendly only
Answer: B) Using shorter data collection (one season only)
Explanation: Rapid EIA is quicker but less detailed.
16. In India, the EIA Notification was first issued in:
A) 1972
B) 1986
C) 1994
D) 2006
Answer: C) 1994
Explanation: First EIA notification under EPA, later revised in 2006.
17. Social Impact Assessment (SIA) studies:
A) Only air quality
B) Effects of projects on people and communities
C) Only biodiversity
D) Only economic cost
Answer: B) Effects of projects on people and communities
Explanation: SIA evaluates social and cultural consequences.
18. Environmental Audit is conducted to:
A) Approve mining projects
B) Assess compliance with environmental standards
C) Grant forest clearances
D) Issue pollution certificates
Answer: B) Assess compliance with environmental standards
Explanation: Audits ensure industries meet environmental norms.
19. “Precautionary Principle” in EIA means:
A) Approve projects without studies
B) Take preventive action in advance of complete proof
C) Wait for full certainty before acting
D) Ignore small risks
Answer: B) Take preventive action in advance of complete proof
Explanation: Better to prevent than to cure environmental damage.
20. EMP includes:
A) Mitigation measures
B) Monitoring programs
C) Waste management plans
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: EMP is a comprehensive plan to minimize adverse impacts.
21. Which of the following is NOT a limitation of EIA?
A) Inadequate baseline data
B) Time and cost consuming
C) Public participation requirement
D) Uncertainty in predictions
Answer: C) Public participation requirement
Explanation: Public participation is a strength, not a limitation.
22. Which is a mandatory document for major projects in India?
A) EIA Report
B) Environmental Clearance (EC) letter
C) Forest clearance
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: Depending on project type, multiple approvals are needed.
23. The EIA process in India is monitored by:
A) NGT
B) MoEFCC
C) SEIAA/SEAC at state level
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: EIA involves multiple monitoring and clearance authorities.
24. Which of the following projects needs mandatory EIA in India?
A) Nuclear power plants
B) Highways
C) Mining projects
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: Large, environmentally sensitive projects require EIA.
25. Baseline studies in EIA are conducted to:
A) Assess current environmental status before project
B) Study only air quality
C) Record company profits
D) Compare international laws
Answer: A) Assess current environmental status before project
Explanation: Baseline data is essential to measure impacts later.
26. Environmental Management (EM) primarily aims at:
A) Maximizing industrial growth only
B) Conserving resources and reducing pollution
C) Ignoring community welfare
D) Exploiting natural resources
Answer: B) Conserving resources and reducing pollution
Explanation: EM ensures sustainable use of natural resources while protecting ecosystems.
27. Which of the following is NOT an environmental management approach?
A) Waste minimization
B) Cleaner production
C) Pollution prevention
D) Overexploitation
Answer: D) Overexploitation
Explanation: Overexploitation causes environmental degradation.
28. ISO 14001 certification relates to:
A) Occupational safety
B) Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
C) Industrial productivity
D) Corporate profits
Answer: B) Environmental Management Systems (EMS)
Explanation: ISO 14001 provides standards for EMS implementation worldwide.
29. Which is a preventive environmental management technique?
A) Installing end-of-pipe filters
B) Recycling and reusing waste
C) Open dumping
D) Ignoring pollution
Answer: B) Recycling and reusing waste
Explanation: Prevention focuses on reducing waste generation at source.
30. Eco-labeling helps consumers by:
A) Identifying environmentally friendly products
B) Promoting deforestation
C) Reducing transparency
D) Increasing waste
Answer: A) Identifying environmentally friendly products
Explanation: Eco-labels encourage sustainable consumer choices.
31. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) includes:
A) Only profit maximization
B) Responsibility towards society and environment
C) Export promotion only
D) Political funding
Answer: B) Responsibility towards society and environment
Explanation: CSR requires companies to balance profit with social and environmental care.
32. Which of the following is an example of market-based environmental management?
A) Carbon tax
B) Pollution control boards
C) Environmental courts
D) Public awareness campaigns
Answer: A) Carbon tax
Explanation: Market-based tools (taxes, tradable permits) incentivize emission reduction.
33. Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) applies to:
A) Consumers
B) Producers responsible for post-consumer waste
C) Government only
D) NGOs
Answer: B) Producers responsible for post-consumer waste
Explanation: EPR requires producers to collect and recycle their products (e-waste, plastics).
34. Which management principle is followed in Integrated Solid Waste Management?
A) 3Rs – Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
B) Mining expansion
C) Industrial monopoly
D) Exporting waste
Answer: A) 3Rs – Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
Explanation: ISWM emphasizes waste minimization and resource recovery.
35. Cleaner Production (CP) is defined as:
A) Using more raw materials
B) Preventive approach to reduce pollution at source
C) Installing pollution control devices after pollution occurs
D) Ignoring environment
Answer: B) Preventive approach to reduce pollution at source
Explanation: CP avoids pollution instead of treating it later.
36. Environmental Auditing is conducted to:
A) Approve new projects
B) Monitor compliance with environmental standards
C) Reduce biodiversity
D) Promote monoculture
Answer: B) Monitor compliance with environmental standards
Explanation: Audits check whether industries meet environmental norms.
37. Which of the following is an example of a command-and-control approach in environmental management?
A) Pollution tax
B) Carbon credit trading
C) Regulatory standards and penalties
D) Eco-labeling
Answer: C) Regulatory standards and penalties
Explanation: Command-and-control relies on laws and enforcement.
38. Environmental Management System (EMS) cycle follows:
A) Plan → Do → Check → Act
B) Plan → Profit → Expand → Export
C) Collect → Dump → Burn → Bury
D) None
Answer: A) Plan → Do → Check → Act
Explanation: EMS follows PDCA cycle for continuous improvement.
39. Which of the following is NOT a component of sustainable environmental management?
A) Social equity
B) Economic development
C) Environmental protection
D) Overexploitation of resources
Answer: D) Overexploitation of resources
Explanation: Sustainability balances economy, society, and environment.
40. Agenda 21 was adopted at:
A) Stockholm Conference, 1972
B) Rio Earth Summit, 1992
C) Kyoto Protocol, 1997
D) Paris Agreement, 2015
Answer: B) Rio Earth Summit, 1992
Explanation: Agenda 21 is a global action plan for sustainable development.
41. Which of the following is an instrument of environmental management?
A) Environmental legislation
B) Market-based instruments
C) Environmental education
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: EM uses legal, economic, and educational instruments.
42. Which of the following is a voluntary environmental management approach?
A) ISO 14001 EMS certification
B) Pollution control regulations
C) Court orders
D) Penalties
Answer: A) ISO 14001 EMS certification
Explanation: ISO 14001 is voluntary, but widely adopted for credibility.
43. Green marketing means:
A) Selling only agricultural products
B) Promoting eco-friendly products and services
C) Using green-colored packaging only
D) Selling waste materials
Answer: B) Promoting eco-friendly products and services
Explanation: Green marketing enhances sustainability and consumer awareness.
44. Environmental Governance refers to:
A) Corporate monopolies
B) Laws, institutions, and processes managing environment
C) Only NGO activities
D) Profit-driven strategies
Answer: B) Laws, institutions, and processes managing environment
Explanation: Governance ensures accountability and sustainability in environmental management.
45. Carrying Capacity Based Development Planning is used to:
A) Expand industries unlimitedly
B) Limit development within ecosystem capacity
C) Encourage overexploitation
D) Remove forests for cities
Answer: B) Limit development within ecosystem capacity
Explanation: It prevents overuse of environmental resources.
46. Which sector contributes most to greenhouse gas emissions in India?
A) Industry
B) Agriculture
C) Energy (Power generation)
D) Transport
Answer: C) Energy (Power generation)
Explanation: Coal-based power plants are the largest GHG emitters.
47. Which of the following is an eco-friendly technology?
A) Solar power
B) Wind energy
C) Biogas plants
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: Renewable energy technologies reduce environmental impacts.
48. Which principle underlies sustainable waste management?
A) Circular economy
B) Linear economy
C) Exporting waste abroad
D) Landfilling only
Answer: A) Circular economy
Explanation: Resources are reused and recycled in a closed loop.
49. Corporate Environmental Responsibility (CER) in India is regulated under:
A) Air Act, 1981
B) Companies Act, 2013
C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
D) Water Act, 1974
Answer: B) Companies Act, 2013
Explanation: Companies are required to spend CSR funds on environmental protection.
50. Eco-efficiency means:
A) More profit with less environmental impact
B) More energy use and more waste
C) Ignoring sustainability
D) Stopping all industrial activity
Answer: A) More profit with less environmental impact
Explanation: Eco-efficiency improves productivity while reducing resource use and pollution.
51. The first major environmental law enacted in India was:
A) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
B) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
C) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
D) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Answer: B) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
Explanation: This was the first comprehensive law to address water pollution and establish Pollution Control Boards.
52. The Environment Protection Act (EPA) in India was passed in:
A) 1972
B) 1981
C) 1986
D) 1992
Answer: C) 1986
Explanation: Enacted after the Bhopal Gas Tragedy, EPA gives wide powers to regulate environment.
53. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in India in:
A) 1974
B) 1981
C) 1986
D) 1990
Answer: B) 1981
Explanation: It controls air pollution and created CPCB & SPCBs.
54. The Wildlife Protection Act in India was enacted in:
A) 1972
B) 1980
C) 1986
D) 1995
Answer: A) 1972
Explanation: It provides protection to wild animals, birds, and plants.
55. Which act regulates the conservation of forests in India?
A) Indian Forest Act, 1927
B) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
C) Wildlife Act, 1972
D) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Answer: B) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Explanation: This act prevents diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes.
56. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established in India in:
A) 1992
B) 2000
C) 2010
D) 2015
Answer: C) 2010
Explanation: NGT provides speedy disposal of environmental disputes.
57. Which of the following is NOT a function of CPCB?
A) Monitoring pollution levels
B) Conducting environmental research
C) Enforcing corporate social responsibility (CSR)
D) Implementing pollution control laws
Answer: C) Enforcing corporate social responsibility (CSR)
Explanation: CSR is under Companies Act, not CPCB’s mandate.
58. Public Liability Insurance Act (1991) in India ensures:
A) Insurance coverage for industries
B) Immediate relief to victims of industrial accidentsC) Compensation for biodiversity loss
D) Tax relief to polluters
Answer: B) Immediate relief to victims of industrial accidents
Explanation: It provides compensation to people affected by hazardous industries.
59. Biodiversity Act in India was passed in:
A) 1992
B) 2000
C) 2002
D) 2010
Answer: C) 2002
Explanation: The Biological Diversity Act 2002 implements CBD commitments.
60. Which Indian act addresses noise pollution?
A) Forest Act, 1980
B) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
D) Wildlife Act, 1972
Answer: C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
Explanation: Noise pollution is regulated as an environmental pollutant under EPA.
61. Ramsar Convention (1971) deals with:
A) Wetland conservation
B) Desertification control
C) Ozone depletion
D) Forest management
Answer: A) Wetland conservation
Explanation: Ramsar is an international treaty for wetland protection.
62. The Rio Earth Summit (1992) led to:
A) Montreal Protocol
B) UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
C) Basel Convention
D) Kyoto Protocol
Answer: B) UNFCCC
Explanation: The Rio Summit produced UNFCCC, CBD, and Agenda 21.
63. The Montreal Protocol (1987) is related to:
A) Greenhouse gas emissions
B) Ozone-depleting substances
C) Desertification
D) Hazardous waste trade
Answer: B) Ozone-depleting substances
Explanation: It phases out CFCs and related chemicals.
64. The Kyoto Protocol (1997) focuses on:
A) Wetland conservation
B) Global warming and greenhouse gases
C) Wildlife trade
D) Mining regulation
Answer: B) Global warming and greenhouse gases
Explanation: Kyoto set binding targets for reducing GHG emissions.
65. The Paris Agreement (2015) aims to limit global warming to:
A) Below 3°C
B) Below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C
C) Below 4°C
D) No specific target
Answer: B) Below 2°C, ideally 1.5°C
Explanation: The agreement emphasizes NDCs for emission reduction.
66. The Basel Convention (1989) deals with:
A) Plastic pollution
B) Hazardous waste movement across borders
C) Forest conservation
D) Acid rain
Answer: B) Hazardous waste movement across borders
Explanation: It regulates export/import of hazardous waste.
67. The Stockholm Convention (2001) targets:
A) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
B) Wetland biodiversity
C) Desertification
D) Groundwater contamination
Answer: A) Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs)
Explanation: Stockholm Convention restricts dangerous POPs like DDT, PCBs, dioxins.
68. Cartagena Protocol (2000) relates to:
A) Hazardous waste
B) Biosafety and GMOs
C) Greenhouse gases
D) Ozone depletion
Answer: B) Biosafety and GMOs
Explanation: It ensures safe handling of genetically modified organisms.
69. Which Indian law provides protection to coastal zones?
A) CRZ Notification, 1991
B) Water Act, 1974
C) Forest Act, 1980
D) Air Act, 1981
Answer: A) CRZ Notification, 1991
Explanation: Coastal Regulation Zone Notification restricts activities along India’s coasts.
70. Which international treaty is concerned with endangered species trade?
A) Ramsar Convention
B) CITES
C) Kyoto Protocol
D) Basel Convention
Answer: B) CITES
Explanation: CITES (1975) controls trade in endangered flora and fauna.
71. The Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB) in India was established in:
A) 1990
B) 2002
C) 2007
D) 2010
Answer: C) 2007
Explanation: WCCB combats illegal wildlife trade in India.
72. The Environment Protection Act (1986) was passed after which disaster?
A) Chernobyl Disaster
B) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
C) Minamata Disaster
D) Tsunami 2004
Answer: B) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Explanation: The 1984 tragedy highlighted the need for stricter environmental laws.
73. The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established under:
A) Wildlife Act, 1972
B) Biodiversity Act, 2002
C) Environment Protection Act, 1986
D) Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Answer: B) Biodiversity Act, 2002
Explanation: NBA manages access to biological resources and benefit-sharing.
74. Which Indian constitutional article directs the State to protect and improve environment?
A) Article 14
B) Article 21
C) Article 48A
D) Article 370
Answer: C) Article 48A
Explanation: It is a Directive Principle mandating environmental protection.
75. Which Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to a healthy environment as part of Right to Life?
A) Article 14
B) Article 21
C) Article 19
D) Article 32
Answer: B) Article 21
Explanation: The Supreme Court interpreted Article 21 to include the right to a clean environment.
76. The Polluter Pays Principle (PPP) means:
A) Polluter pays government taxes only
B) Polluter bears cost of preventing & cleaning pollution
C) Polluter gets tax exemptions
D) Polluter shifts responsibility to NGOs
Answer: B) Polluter bears cost of preventing & cleaning pollution
Explanation: PPP ensures accountability of industries and individuals causing pollution.
77. The Precautionary Principle in environmental law implies:
A) Wait for full proof before action
B) Take preventive measures even in scientific uncertainty
C) Ignore small risks
D) Ban all industries
Answer: B) Take preventive measures even in scientific uncertainty
Explanation: It favors early action to avoid irreversible environmental damage.
78. Which international body reviews compliance with Paris Agreement?
A) UNEP
B) IPCC
C) UNFCCC
D) World Bank
Answer: C) UNFCCC
Explanation: UNFCCC oversees Paris Agreement implementation through COP meetings.
79. Green Tribunal in India primarily handles:
A) Civil disputes only
B) Criminal trials
C) Environmental cases
D) Political issues
Answer: C) Environmental cases
Explanation: NGT resolves environmental disputes quickly and effectively.
80. Environmental Clearance (EC) in India is valid for how many years for mining projects?
A) 5 years
B) 10 years
C) 20 years
D) 30 years
Answer: B) 10 years
Explanation: EC validity is project-specific; mining projects generally get 10 years.
81. The “Right to Information (RTI)” Act (2005) strengthens environmental governance by:
A) Limiting citizen access
B) Promoting transparency & accountability
C) Banning NGOs
D) Reducing public hearings
Answer: B) Promoting transparency & accountability
Explanation: Citizens can demand information on environmental clearances, laws, and pollution data.
82. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, empowers the central government to:
A) Close polluting industries
B) Set emission standards
C) Declare eco-sensitive zones
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: EPA 1986 gives wide-ranging powers to regulate environment.
83. The term “Carbon Credit” refers to:
A) Unit of tax exemption
B) Tradeable permit equal to 1 tonne of CO₂ reduced/removed
C) Money spent on green products
D) Plantation certificate
Answer: B) Tradeable permit equal to 1 tonne of CO₂ reduced/removed
Explanation: Carbon credits allow trading of emission reductions under Kyoto Protocol.
84. Which body in India implements the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)?
A) CPCB
B) MoEFCC
C) NGT
D) State governments only
Answer: B) MoEFCC
Explanation: The Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change coordinates NAPCC.
85. The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ) rules in India restrict:
A) Fishing
B) Construction & industrial activities along coasts
C) Tourism
D) Ship navigation
Answer: B) Construction & industrial activities along coasts
Explanation: CRZ protects fragile coastal ecosystems from unregulated development.
86. Which Indian program focuses on afforestation and eco-restoration?
A) Namami Gange
B) Green India Mission
C) Smart Cities Mission
D) Atal Jal
Answer: B) Green India Mission
Explanation: Launched under NAPCC, it enhances carbon sinks via afforestation.
87. Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in environmental cases allows:
A) Only government agencies to sue
B) Any citizen/NGO to approach court
C) Only industrialists to challenge laws
D) No public involvement
Answer: B) Any citizen/NGO to approach court
Explanation: PIL democratizes access to environmental justice.
88. Which international treaty deals with desertification?
A) Ramsar Convention
B) UNCCD
C) CITES
D) Kyoto Protocol
Answer: B) UNCCD
Explanation: The UN Convention to Combat Desertification addresses land degradation and drought.
89. Eco-sensitive zones (ESZs) in India are declared around:
A) Highways
B) Wildlife sanctuaries & national parks
C) Industrial areas
D) Rivers
Answer: B) Wildlife sanctuaries & national parks
Explanation: ESZs act as buffer zones to protect core wildlife habitats.
90. Which principle guides the Rio Declaration (1992)?
A) Sustainable development
B) Open market economy
C) Free trade in endangered species
D) Industrial monopoly
Answer: A) Sustainable development
Explanation: Rio Declaration emphasizes balance between environment and development.
91. Which of the following is a penalty under the Environment Protection Act, 1986?
A) Fine up to ₹1 lakh
B) Imprisonment up to 5 years
C) Both A and B
D) Only company closure
Answer: C) Both A and B
Explanation: Violations invite fines and imprisonment.
92. The Nagoya Protocol (2010) is related to:
A) Biodiversity access and benefit sharing
B) Hazardous waste
C) Climate change
D) Wetlands
Answer: A) Biodiversity access and benefit sharing
Explanation: It ensures fair sharing of benefits from use of genetic resources.
93. In India, Environmental Statements (audit reports) by industries are submitted:
A) Monthly
B) Annually
C) Every 5 years
D) Not mandatory
Answer: B) Annually
Explanation: Industries must file annual environmental compliance reports.
94. Which international agreement banned trade in ozone-depleting substances?
A) Basel Convention
B) Montreal Protocol
C) Rio Declaration
D) Kyoto Protocol
Answer: B) Montreal Protocol
Explanation: Montreal phased out ODS like CFCs, HCFCs, and halons.
95. Which Indian body regulates clearance for hydroelectric projects?
A) Central Water Commission
B) MoEFCC
C) NGT
D) State Pollution Control Boards
Answer: B) MoEFCC
Explanation: Environmental clearance for major hydropower projects comes from MoEFCC.
96. Which country is NOT a party to the Kyoto Protocol?
A) India
B) USA
C) China
D) Japan
Answer: B) USA
Explanation: The USA signed but never ratified Kyoto Protocol.
97. The National Environment Policy (NEP) of India was adopted in:
A) 1992
B) 2002
C) 2006
D) 2010
Answer: C) 2006
Explanation: NEP 2006 provides an overarching framework for sustainable development.
98. Which international treaty regulates movement of hazardous chemicals?
A) Rotterdam Convention
B) Basel Convention
C) Stockholm Convention
D) Nagoya Protocol
Answer: A) Rotterdam Convention
Explanation: It ensures prior informed consent before international trade of hazardous chemicals.
99. Who can approach the NGT for filing a case?
A) Only affected villagers
B) Any person, NGO, or organization
C) Only state government
D) Only industries
Answer: B) Any person, NGO, or organization
Explanation: NGT is accessible to all stakeholders.
100. The ultimate aim of environmental legislation is to:
A) Promote industrial monopoly
B) Balance environmental protection with development
C) Ban all industries
D) Increase government revenue
Answer: B) Balance environmental protection with development
Explanation: Environmental laws safeguard ecosystems while allowing sustainable development.