1. The scientific study of the relationship between organisms and their environment is called:
A) Biology
B) Ecology
C) Geology
D) Sociology
Answer: B) Ecology
Explanation: Ecology is derived from the Greek word Oikos (house) and Logos (study). It deals with interactions of living organisms with each other and their environment.
2. Who is regarded as the “Father of Ecology”?
A) Charles Darwin
B) Haeckel
C) Odum
D) Wallace
Answer: B) Haeckel
Explanation: Ernst Haeckel coined the term “Ecology” in 1869.
3. Which of the following is a biotic component of an ecosystem?
A) Temperature
B) Rainfall
C) Plants
D) Soil
Answer: C) Plants
Explanation: Biotic components include living things such as plants, animals, and microorganisms.
4. Which of the following is an abiotic factor?
A) Birds
B) Fungi
C) Minerals
D) Bacteria
Answer: C) Minerals
Explanation: Abiotic factors are non-living components such as soil, water, temperature, and minerals.
5. The largest ecosystem on Earth is:
A) Desert
B) Grassland
C) Ocean
D) Forest
Answer: C) Ocean
Explanation: Oceans cover ~71% of Earth’s surface and form the largest ecosystem.
6. A group of similar organisms capable of interbreeding and producing fertile offspring is called:
A) Population
B) Species
C) Community
D) Genus
Answer: B) Species
Explanation: Species is the basic unit of classification and biodiversity.
7. The functional unit of ecology is:
A) Population
B) Ecosystem
C) Community
D) Habitat
Answer: B) Ecosystem
Explanation: Ecosystem includes both biotic and abiotic components interacting as a system.
8. The pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is always:
A) Upright
B) Inverted
C) Cylindrical
D) Variable
Answer: A) Upright
Explanation: Energy flow decreases at each trophic level, hence pyramid of energy is always upright.
9. The transfer of energy from one trophic level to the next is approximately:
A) 5%
B) 10%
C) 20%
D) 50%
Answer: B) 10%
Explanation: According to Lindeman’s 10% law, only about 10% of energy is transferred to the next trophic level.
10. Which ecosystem has the highest productivity?
A) Desert
B) Ocean
C) Tropical Rainforest
D) Grassland
Answer: C) Tropical Rainforest
Explanation: Tropical rainforests have high temperature, moisture, and biodiversity, resulting in maximum productivity.
11. The branch of ecology that deals with individual species is:
A) Synecology
B) Autecology
C) Paleontology
D) Phylogeny
Answer: B) Autecology
Explanation: Autecology studies the ecology of a single species, while synecology studies groups of species.
12. Which of the following is an example of a primary consumer?
A) Lion
B) Goat
C) Hawk
D) Tiger
Answer: B) Goat
Explanation: Goats feed on plants (producers), hence are herbivores and primary consumers.
13. Secondary consumers are generally:
A) Herbivores
B) Carnivores
C) Decomposers
D) Producers
Answer: B) Carnivores
Explanation: Secondary consumers feed on herbivores.
14. The organisms that break down dead organic matter are called:
A) Consumers
B) Decomposers
C) Producers
D) Predators
Answer: B) Decomposers
Explanation: Decomposers (fungi, bacteria) recycle nutrients by decomposing dead matter.
15. Energy flow in an ecosystem is:
A) Cyclic
B) Linear and unidirectional
C) Multidirectional
D) Static
Answer: B) Linear and unidirectional
Explanation: Energy flows from sun → producers → consumers → decomposers, and is not recycled.
16. The self-sufficient ecosystem is:
A) Pond
B) Desert
C) Grassland
D) Ocean
Answer: A) Pond
Explanation: A pond contains producers, consumers, decomposers, and abiotic components – making it self-sufficient.
17. Which of the following is NOT a renewable resource?
A) Solar energy
B) Wind energy
C) Fossil fuels
D) Water
Answer: C) Fossil fuels
Explanation: Fossil fuels take millions of years to form, hence are non-renewable.
18. The concept of “Ecological Niche” was introduced by:
A) Grinnell
B) Haeckel
C) Odum
D) Darwin
Answer: A) Grinnell
Explanation: Joseph Grinnell introduced the ecological niche concept in 1917.
19. The sum of all ecosystems on Earth is called:
A) Lithosphere
B) Biosphere
C) Atmosphere
D) Hydrosphere
Answer: B) Biosphere
Explanation: Biosphere includes all life forms and ecosystems of Earth.
20. Which cycle does not have an atmospheric component?
A) Carbon cycle
B) Nitrogen cycle
C) Phosphorus cycle
D) Oxygen cycle
Answer: C) Phosphorus cycle
Explanation: Phosphorus cycle lacks a gaseous phase, it occurs mainly in rocks and soil.
21. The natural place of an organism is called its:
A) Habitat
B) Niche
C) Territory
D) Domain
Answer: A) Habitat
Explanation: Habitat is the physical environment where an organism lives.
22. The process of self-purification of water bodies by natural means is called:
A) Eutrophication
B) Bioremediation
C) Self-regulation
D) Natural attenuation
Answer: D) Natural attenuation
Explanation: It refers to the natural capacity of ecosystems to purify themselves.
23. Which is the major reservoir of carbon?
A) Plants
B) Atmosphere
C) Oceans
D) Soil
Answer: C) Oceans
Explanation: Oceans store the largest amount of carbon in dissolved form.
24. Which ecological pyramid can be inverted?
A) Pyramid of energy
B) Pyramid of number
C) Pyramid of biomass
D) Both B & C
Answer: D) Both B & C
Explanation: Pyramids of number and biomass can be inverted (e.g., tree ecosystem, aquatic system), but energy pyramid is always upright.
25. Which type of succession starts on bare rocks?
A) Primary succession
B) Secondary succession
C) Hydrarch succession
D) Xerarch succession
Answer: A) Primary succession
Explanation: Primary succession begins on previously uninhabited surfaces like rocks, sand, or lava.
26. A group of individuals of the same species living in a particular area is called:
A) Community
B) Population
C) Ecosystem
D) Biome
Answer: B) Population
Explanation: Population refers to all individuals of one species in a given area at a given time.
27. The maximum number of individuals of a species that an environment can support is called:
A) Population density
B) Carrying capacity
C) Growth potential
D) Natality
Answer: B) Carrying capacity
Explanation: Carrying capacity is the sustainable limit of population supported by resources.
28. The J-shaped population growth curve represents:
A) Logistic growth
B) Exponential growth
C) Declining growth
D) Stable growth
Answer: B) Exponential growth
Explanation: Exponential growth shows rapid increase without environmental resistance, forming a J-curve.
29. In logistic growth, the population growth curve is:
A) J-shaped
B) S-shaped
C) Linear
D) Bell-shaped
Answer: B) S-shaped
Explanation: Logistic growth includes environmental resistance and stabilizes at carrying capacity, forming an S-curve.
30. Population density refers to:
A) Number of species in a biome
B) Number of organisms per unit area
C) Growth rate of organisms
D) Reproductive capacity
Answer: B) Number of organisms per unit area
Explanation: Population density = Population size ÷ Area.
31. The interaction in which both species benefit is called:
A) Parasitism
B) Commensalism
C) Mutualism
D) Predation
Answer: C) Mutualism
Explanation: In mutualism, both organisms gain (e.g., bees and flowers).
32. The ecological interaction in which one species is harmed and the other is unaffected is:
A) Commensalism
B) Amensalism
C) Mutualism
D) Competition
Answer: B) Amensalism
Explanation: Example – Penicillium secretes penicillin that kills bacteria, but Penicillium is unaffected.
33. Which biome is characterized by permafrost?
A) Desert
B) Grassland
C) Tundra
D) Rainforest
Answer: C) Tundra
Explanation: Tundra biome has permanently frozen subsoil (permafrost).
34. Which of the following is the largest terrestrial biome?
A) Tropical rainforest
B) Taiga (boreal forest)
C) Desert
D) Grassland
Answer: B) Taiga (boreal forest)
Explanation: The boreal forest covers Canada, Russia, and Northern Europe, making it the largest land biome.
35. Which biome has the greatest biodiversity?
A) Desert
B) Grassland
C) Temperate forest
D) Tropical rainforest
Answer: D) Tropical rainforest
Explanation: Tropical rainforests near the equator have maximum biodiversity due to warm, moist conditions.
36. The desert biome is characterized by:
A) High rainfall, low temperature
B) Low rainfall, high evaporation
C) High biodiversity and rainfall
D) Rich soils and grasses
Answer: B) Low rainfall, high evaporation
Explanation: Deserts receive <25 cm of rainfall annually and have high evaporation rates.
37. Which biome is dominated by grasses and grazing animals?
A) Tundra
B) Grassland
C) Desert
D) Rainforest
Answer: B) Grassland
Explanation: Grasslands support grasses, herbivores, and large grazers (e.g., bison, antelopes).
38. The gradual replacement of one community by another in an ecosystem is called:
A) Adaptation
B) Ecological succession
C) Evolution
D) Colonization
Answer: B) Ecological succession
Explanation: Succession is the sequential development of communities in an area.
39. The first species to colonize bare areas in primary succession are called:
A) Dominant species
B) Pioneer species
C) Climax species
D) Invasive species
Answer: B) Pioneer species
Explanation: Pioneer species (lichens, mosses) modify the environment, making it suitable for other species.
40. Primary succession takes place on:
A) Bare rocks
B) Abandoned farmland
C) Burned forests
D) Flooded landsAnswer: A) Bare rocks
Explanation: Primary succession begins in lifeless areas with no soil (rocks, lava, sand dunes).
41. Secondary succession occurs on:
A) Newly formed land
B) Bare rock
C) Disturbed areas with soil
D) Oceans
Answer: C) Disturbed areas with soil
Explanation: Secondary succession happens after disturbances like fire, flood, or human activity but soil remains.
42. The final stable community formed after succession is called:
A) Climax community
B) Pioneer community
C) Transitional community
D) Secondary community
Answer: A) Climax community
Explanation: The climax community is stable, self-sustaining, and in equilibrium with the environment.
43. Xerarch succession begins in:
A) Water bodies
B) Dry habitats
C) Swamps
D) Oceans
Answer: B) Dry habitats
Explanation: Xerarch succession starts in dry areas such as rocks and sand.
44. Hydrarch succession begins in:
A) Desert
B) Lakes or ponds
C) Forests
D) Grassland
Answer: B) Lakes or ponds
Explanation: Hydrarch succession starts in aquatic habitats and leads to terrestrial vegetation.
45. Which species play a crucial role in maintaining ecosystem structure and functioning?
A) Endangered species
B) Pioneer species
C) Keystone species
D) Exotic species
Answer: C) Keystone species
Explanation: Keystone species (e.g., tiger, sea otter) regulate ecosystem balance by controlling prey/predator populations.
46. Which biome is called “the lungs of the Earth”?
A) Savanna
B) Tropical rainforest
C) Tundra
D) Desert
Answer: B) Tropical rainforest
Explanation: Amazon rainforest produces ~20% of the Earth’s oxygen, hence called “lungs of Earth.”
47. The process by which fertile land becomes desert due to overgrazing, deforestation, or climate change is:
A) Succession
B) Desertification
C) Erosion
D) Salinization
Answer: B) Desertification
Explanation: Desertification is land degradation in arid regions, often caused by human activities.
48. Biomes are primarily classified based on:
A) Latitude
B) Vegetation and climate
C) Animal distribution
D) Soil type
Answer: B) Vegetation and climate
Explanation: Biomes are determined mainly by rainfall and temperature, which influence vegetation.
49. Which of the following is an example of commensalism?
A) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
B) Lion and zebra
C) Mosquito and human
D) Algae and fungi in lichen
Answer: A) Cattle egret and grazing cattle
Explanation: Egrets eat insects disturbed by cattle. Cattle is unaffected, egret benefits.
50. The process by which a lake becomes nutrient-rich and supports excessive plant growth is called:
A) Biomagnification
B) Eutrophication
C) Succession
D) Pollution
Answer: B) Eutrophication
Explanation: Eutrophication occurs when nutrient enrichment (N, P) causes algal blooms and oxygen depletion.
51. The total variety of organisms in a given area is called:
A) Ecology
B) Biodiversity
C) Biogeography
D) Endemism
Answer: B) Biodiversity
Explanation: Biodiversity includes genetic diversity, species diversity, and ecosystem diversity.
52. Which country has the highest biodiversity in the world?
A) Brazil
B) India
C) USA
D) China
Answer: A) Brazil
Explanation: Brazil, home to the Amazon rainforest, is the most biodiverse country.
53. India is one of the world’s:
A) 5 megadiverse countries
B) 12 megadiverse countries
C) 17 megadiverse countries
D) 25 megadiverse countries
Answer: C) 17 megadiverse countries
Explanation: India is among 17 megadiverse nations that harbor majority of Earth’s species.
54. Which of the following is a biodiversity hotspot in India?
A) Indo-Gangetic plains
B) Himalaya
C) Thar Desert
D) Sundarbans
Answer: B) Himalaya
Explanation: India has 4 biodiversity hotspots: Himalaya, Indo-Burma, Indo-Malayan, and Western Ghats.
55. Endemic species are:
A) Found everywhere
B) Found only in a particular region
C) Alien species
D) Migratory species
Answer: B) Found only in a particular region
Explanation: Endemic species occur naturally in a single geographic location (e.g., Nilgiri Tahr in Western Ghats).
56. Which of the following is a critically endangered species in India?
A) Tiger
B) Lion-tailed macaque
C) Great Indian bustard
D) Peacock
Answer: C) Great Indian bustard
Explanation: The Great Indian bustard is one of the most critically endangered birds in India.
57. The Red Data Book contains information about:
A) Medicinal plants
B) Endangered species
C) Alien species
D) Domesticated animals
Answer: B) Endangered species
Explanation: The IUCN Red Data Book lists threatened and endangered species globally.
58. Which organization publishes the Red List of Threatened Species?
A) WWF
B) IUCN
C) UNEP
D) UNDP
Answer: B) IUCN
Explanation: The International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) publishes the Red List.
59. The term “biodiversity hotspot” was coined by:
A) E.O. Wilson
B) Norman Myers
C) Charles Darwin
D) Haeckel
Answer: B) Norman Myers
Explanation: Norman Myers introduced the concept of biodiversity hotspots in 1988.
60. In-situ conservation refers to:
A) Protecting species outside their habitat
B) Protecting species within their natural habitat
C) Using biotechnology for conservation
D) Breeding animals in captivity
Answer: B) Protecting species within their natural habitat
Explanation: In-situ methods include national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and biosphere reserves.
61. Which of the following is an ex-situ conservation method?
A) National parks
B) Wildlife sanctuaries
C) Botanical gardens
D) Biosphere reserves
Answer: C) Botanical gardens
Explanation: Ex-situ conservation includes zoos, botanical gardens, gene banks, and seed banks.
62. The world’s first national park was:
A) Yellowstone (USA)
B) Jim Corbett (India)
C) Gir National Park (India)
D) Kruger (South Africa)
Answer: A) Yellowstone (USA)
Explanation: Yellowstone National Park was established in 1872 in the USA.
63. The first national park in India was:
A) Gir National Park
B) Kaziranga National Park
C) Jim Corbett National Park
D) Bandhavgarh National Park
Answer: C) Jim Corbett National Park
Explanation: Jim Corbett (then Hailey National Park) was established in 1936.
64. Which biosphere reserve in India is included in UNESCO’s World Network of Biosphere Reserves?
A) Nanda Devi
B) Sundarbans
C) Nilgiri
D) All of these
Answer: D) All of these
Explanation: Several Indian biosphere reserves (e.g., Nilgiri, Sundarbans, Nanda Devi) are UNESCO recognized.
65. Project Tiger was launched in India in:
A) 1969
B) 1973
C) 1985
D) 1992
Answer: B) 1973
Explanation: Project Tiger was started in 1973 to conserve the endangered Bengal tiger.
66. The Chipko Movement was primarily aimed at:
A) Wildlife conservation
B) Forest conservation
C) Water conservation
D) Soil conservation
Answer: B) Forest conservation
Explanation: Chipko movement (1970s, Uttarakhand) involved hugging trees to prevent deforestation.
67. Which gas is mainly responsible for ozone layer depletion?
A) CO₂
B) CH₄
C) CFCs
D) SO₂
Answer: C) CFCs
Explanation: Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) break down ozone molecules, causing ozone holes.
68. The Kyoto Protocol is related to:
A) Biodiversity conservation
B) Wetland conservation
C) Climate change & greenhouse gas reduction
D) Ozone depletion
Answer: C) Climate change & greenhouse gas reduction
Explanation: Kyoto Protocol (1997) binds nations to reduce GHG emissions.
69. The Montreal Protocol (1987) aims to control:
A) Acid rain
B) Desertification
C) Ozone-depleting substances
D) Nuclear waste
Answer: C) Ozone-depleting substances
Explanation: Montreal Protocol regulates production of CFCs and other ozone-depleting chemicals.
70. Which cycle does not involve a gaseous phase?
A) Nitrogen cycle
B) Carbon cycle
C) Phosphorus cycle
D) Oxygen cycle
Answer: C) Phosphorus cycle
Explanation: Phosphorus cycle lacks a gaseous phase; it occurs in soil, rocks, and sediments.
71. Nitrogen fixation is carried out by:
A) Fungi
B) Algae
C) Bacteria
D) Viruses
Answer: C) Bacteria
Explanation: Nitrogen-fixing bacteria (Rhizobium, Azotobacter, Cyanobacteria) convert atmospheric N₂ into usable form.
72. The process of conversion of ammonia into nitrates by bacteria is called:
A) Nitrogen fixation
B) Ammonification
C) Nitrification
D) Denitrification
Answer: C) Nitrification
Explanation: Nitrifying bacteria (Nitrosomonas, Nitrobacter) convert ammonia into nitrites and nitrates.
73. The process by which nitrates are reduced to gaseous nitrogen is:
A) Denitrification
B) Nitrification
C) Assimilation
D) Ammonification
Answer: A) Denitrification
Explanation: Denitrifying bacteria (Pseudomonas) convert nitrates into N₂ gas.
74. Which gas contributes the most to the greenhouse effect?
A) CO₂
B) CH₄
C) CFCs
D) N₂O
Answer: A) CO₂
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is the main greenhouse gas responsible for global warming.
75. The process of recycling nutrients in an ecosystem is mainly carried out by:
A) Producers
B) Consumers
C) Decomposers
D) Herbivores
Answer: C) Decomposers
Explanation: Decomposers (bacteria, fungi) recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter into usable forms.
76. The species that invade a new habitat and spread rapidly, often displacing native species, are called:
A) Endemic species
B) Exotic invasive species
C) Keystone species
D) Indicator species
Answer: B) Exotic invasive species
Explanation: Examples include Lantana camara, Parthenium (Congress grass), and Eichhornia (water hyacinth).
77. Biomagnification refers to:
A) Increase in population size
B) Increase in energy flow in food chains
C) Increase in concentration of toxic substances at higher trophic levels
D) Increase in genetic diversity
Answer: C) Increase in concentration of toxic substances at higher trophic levels
Explanation: Persistent pollutants like DDT and mercury accumulate progressively up the food chain.
78. Which of the following is a bio-indicator of air pollution?
A) Lichens
B) Bats
C) Frogs
D) Grass
Answer: A) Lichens
Explanation: Lichens are sensitive to SO₂ and other pollutants, indicating air quality.
79. The phenomenon of algae growth due to nutrient enrichment of water is called:
A) Biomagnification
B) Eutrophication
C) Denitrification
D) Bioremediation
Answer: B) Eutrophication
Explanation: Excess nitrogen and phosphorus cause algal blooms, leading to oxygen depletion.
80. Ramsar Convention (1971) is related to conservation of:
A) Forests
B) Wetlands
C) Oceans
D) Deserts
Answer: B) Wetlands
Explanation: Ramsar Convention provides a framework for the conservation of wetlands of international importance.
81. Which is the largest Ramsar site in India (as of 2023)?
A) Chilika Lake
B) Sundarbans
C) Ranganathittu
D) Sunderban Wetland
Answer: B) Sundarbans
Explanation: The Sundarban Wetland in West Bengal is India’s largest Ramsar site.
82. The major cause of biodiversity loss is:
A) Overexploitation
B) Habitat destruction
C) Invasive species
D) Pollution
Answer: B) Habitat destruction
Explanation: Habitat destruction (deforestation, land-use change) is the leading cause of species extinction.
83. The concept of “Ecological Footprint” measures:
A) Carbon emissions
B) Human demand on Earth’s ecosystems
C) Ozone depletion rate
D) Water pollution levels
Answer: B) Human demand on Earth’s ecosystems
Explanation: Ecological footprint indicates how much land/water is needed to sustain human consumption.
84. Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
A) CO₂
B) CH₄
C) O₂
D) N₂O
Answer: C) O₂
Explanation: Oxygen is not a greenhouse gas; it does not trap heat in the atmosphere.
85. The maximum sustainable yield of a renewable resource refers to:
A) Harvesting all available stock
B) Harvesting without allowing renewal
C) Harvesting at a rate that allows resource regeneration
D) Harvesting at random rates
Answer: C) Harvesting at a rate that allows resource regeneration
Explanation: MSY ensures long-term sustainability of renewable resources like fish and forests.
86. Bioremediation refers to:
A) Using chemicals to treat pollutants
B) Using organisms to clean polluted sites
C) Removing forests for cultivation
D) Recycling solid waste
Answer: B) Using organisms to clean polluted sites
Explanation: Example – Pseudomonas bacteria used in oil spill cleanup.
87. Which of the following is a secondary pollutant?
A) SO₂
B) CO₂
C) O₃
D) NO₂
Answer: C) O₃
Explanation: Ground-level ozone is a secondary pollutant formed by reactions of NOx and hydrocarbons.
88. The zone of atmosphere most important for weather phenomena is:
A) Stratosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Answer: B) Troposphere
Explanation: All weather activities occur in the troposphere (up to ~12 km).
89. The ozone layer is found in which atmospheric layer?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Exosphere
Answer: B) Stratosphere
Explanation: The ozone layer lies between 15–35 km in the stratosphere.
90. Acid rain is caused mainly by:
A) CO₂ and CO
B) SO₂ and NOx
C) CH₄ and NH₃
D) CFCs and O₃
Answer: B) SO₂ and NOx
Explanation: Sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides form acids in the atmosphere, causing acid rain.
91. The process of converting solid waste into manure or biogas using microbes is called:
A) Landfilling
B) Composting
C) Incineration
D) Recycling
Answer: B) Composting
Explanation: Composting is a natural, eco-friendly waste management technique.
92. Which ecosystem shows the highest net primary productivity (NPP)?
A) Desert
B) Open ocean
C) Estuaries
D) Grassland
Answer: C) Estuaries
Explanation: Estuaries have rich nutrients and high productivity, more than rainforests per unit area.
93. Which law states that “no two species can occupy the same niche at the same time”?
A) Law of Limiting Factors
B) Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle
C) Hardy-Weinberg Law
D) Lotka-Volterra Model
Answer: B) Gause’s Competitive Exclusion Principle
Explanation: When two species compete for the same resource, one will be eliminated.
94. The ecological pyramid that is always upright is:
A) Pyramid of numbers
B) Pyramid of biomass
C) Pyramid of energy
D) Pyramid of productivity
Answer: C) Pyramid of energy
Explanation: Energy flow decreases at each trophic level, making energy pyramid always upright.
95. Which of the following gases has the highest global warming potential (GWP)?
A) CO₂
B) CH₄
C) N₂O
D) CFCs
Answer: D) CFCs
Explanation: CFCs have the highest GWP (thousands of times more than CO₂).
96. Ecotone is a:
A) Transitional zone between two ecosystems
B) Place where only one species lives
C) Core area of a biome
D) Artificial ecosystem
Answer: A) Transitional zone between two ecosystems
Explanation: Ecotones (e.g., mangroves) have high species diversity due to overlap of two ecosystems.
97. Edge effect refers to:
A) Low biodiversity at ecosystem boundaries
B) High biodiversity at ecotones
C) Absence of species at borders
D) Depletion of nutrients
Answer: B) High biodiversity at ecotones
Explanation: Ecotones show increased species richness, known as edge effect.
98. The term “Silent Spring” was coined by Rachel Carson to highlight:
A) Deforestation
B) Nuclear pollution
C) Pesticide pollution
D) Ozone depletion
Answer: C) Pesticide pollution
Explanation: Rachel Carson’s 1962 book Silent Spring warned against overuse of pesticides like DDT.
99. Which of the following is NOT an ecosystem service?
A) Pollination of crops
B) Climate regulation
C) Soil fertility maintenance
D) Industrial pollution
Answer: D) Industrial pollution
Explanation: Ecosystem services are benefits provided by ecosystems to humans; pollution is a threat, not a service.
100. The term “Gaia Hypothesis” (Earth as a self-regulating system) was proposed by:
A) Charles Darwin
B) James Lovelock
C) E.P. Odum
D) Norman Myers
Answer: B) James Lovelock
Explanation: James Lovelock’s Gaia Hypothesis suggests Earth functions as a self-regulating system.