KEA FDA 2025 GK QUESTION PAPER WITH ANSWER & EXPLANATION

Question 1

Question: Which Indian state is credited with institutionalizing the social audit process in rural development programs?
Options:
(1) Karnataka
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu

Question 2

Question: ‘Vigilance Awareness Week’ is observed every year in the month of:
Options:
(1) December
(2) October
(3) January
(4) May

Question 3

Question: Article 243D of Indian Constitution prescribes for:
Options:
(1) Powers and functions of Grama Sabha
(2) Reservation in Panchayats
(3) State Election Commission
(4) State Finance Commission

Question 4

Question: The key features of MGNREGP are:
(a) Community participation
(b) Priority to weaker sections
(c) Active role of Grama Sabha
(d) 100 days of employment in metropolitan areas
Options:
(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a and d
(4) a, b, c and d

Question 5

Question: Which of the following is NOT an objective of ‘Jansunwai’?
Options:
(1) Scrutiny of Gram Panchayat Budgets
(2) Citizen Engagement
(3) Transparency and Accountability in Governance
(4) Submission of Public Grievances

Question 6

Question: What has been the primary focus of India’s economic policy since the 1991 economic liberalization?
Options:
(1) Promoting export-led growth and foreign investment
(2) Reducing poverty and inequality through social welfare programmes
(3) Achieving the objectives of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(4) Encouraging domestic consumption of imported goods

Question 7

Question: The parliamentary form of government in India is strengthened by the presence of ______.
Options:
(1) A bicameral legislature
(2) An independent judiciary
(3) An active President
(4) A Council of Ministers accountable to the Lok Sabha

Question 8

Question: In 2023, which constitutional article was invoked by the Supreme Court to criticize undue delay by the Governor in granting assent to bills?
Options:
(1) Article 111
(2) Article 123
(3) Article 200
(4) Article 239

Question 9

Question: The Inter-State Council is established under which article?
Options:
(1) Article 260
(2) Article 263
(3) Article 280
(4) Article 356

Question 10

Question: The NOTA (None of the above) option was introduced in Indian elections as a result of ______.
Options:
(1) Supreme Court Judgement, 2013
(2) Law Commission Recommendations
(3) Constitutional Amendment, 2000
(4) Election Commission Circular, 2012

Question 11

Question: Who among the following acts as a returning officer for the election of the President of India?
Options:
(1) Chief Election Commissioner
(2) Secretary General of Lok Sabha
(3) Chief Justice of India
(4) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 12

Question:
Assertion (A): The National Commission for minorities was established to safeguard the constitutional rights of minorities.
Reason (R): The Commission can directly implement policies related to minority welfare.
Options:
(1) Both (A) & (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) & (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is correct

Question 13

Question: Match the Social Movement (Post-2000) with its core Demand or Legal Issue.
Column I: (a) Nirbhaya Movement, (b) Bhim Army Mobilizations, (c) Shaheen Bagh Protests, (d) Adivasi Resistance in Hasdeo Arand
Column II: (i) Opposition to CAA, (ii) Protection of Forest Rights, (iii) Stricter laws for gender violence, (iv) Assertion of Dalit rights
Options:
(1) a – iii, b – iv, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(4) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii

Question 14

Question: The transition from the ‘Look East’ to the ‘Act East’ policy primarily aimed to:
Options:
(1) Shift India’s focus entirely to Central Asia
(2) Focus only on cultural diplomacy with South Asia
(3) Reduce India’s trade with the West
(4) Convert cultural links with East Asia into active economic and strategic partnerships

Question 15

Question: With reference to the location of state capitals of India, identify the SEQUENCE of locations from East to West.
Options:
(1) Hyderabad, Bhubaneswar, Kolkata, Chennai
(2) Chennai, Hyderabad, Bhubaneswar, Kolkata
(3) Kolkata, Bhubaneswar, Chennai, Hyderabad
(4) Bhubaneswar, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Chennai

Question 16

Question: Arrange the settlements as per demographic hierarchy in ascending order.
(a) Metropolitan city, (b) Megacity, (c) One-lakh city, (d) Towns, (e) Intermediate towns
Options:
(1) d, e, c, a, b
(2) a, b, c, d, e
(3) e, d, c, b, a
(4) b, c, d, e; a

Question 17

Question: Which of the following types of forests is the most widespread in India?
Options:
(1) Tropical thorn forest
(2) Tropical evergreen forest
(3) Tropical deciduous forest
(4) Tropical dry deciduous forest

Question 18

Question: Consider the following statements:
(a) Tsunamis are tidal waves.
(b) Tsunamis are large waves that are usually the result of seismic activity.
(c) Only vertical seismic disturbance causes tsunamis.
(d) Large tsunamis occur every 2 – 3 years.
Options:
(1) a, b, c and d are correct
(2) Only a, b and c are correct
(3) Only b, c and d are correct
(4) Only a, b and d are correct

Question 19

Question: Match the following instruments with their uses to measure:
(a) Barometer, (b) Hygrometer, (c) Anemometer, (d) Thermometer
(i) Temperature, (ii) Wind speed, (iii) Atmospheric pressure, (iv) Humidity
Options:
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii

Question 20

Question: Arrange the green house gases contributing to global warming from the least to the most potent.
(a) Carbon dioxide, (b) Sulphur hexafluoride, (c) Methane, (d) Hydrochlorofluorocarbons
Options:
(1) a, b, c, d
(2) b, c, d, a
(3) b, d, c, a
(4) d, c, b, a

Question 21

Question: Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) Ladang, (b) Tamrai, (c) Poda, (d) Chena
List II: (i) India, (ii) Sri Lanka, (iii) Thailand, (iv) Malaysia
Options:
(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – i, d – iv
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
(4) a – i, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii

Question 22

Question: Arrange the following states in the order of area under land degradation from high to low.
(a) Rajasthan, (b) Karnataka, (c) Gujarat, (d) Maharashtra
Options:
(1) a, d, c, b
(2) d, c, b, a
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) a, c, d, b

Question 23

Question: Bioindicator of urban air quality measure is ______.
Options:
(1) Fungi
(2) Algae
(3) Mosses
(4) Lichens

Question 24

Question: Arrange the following global events in the correct chronological order:
(a) Agenda-21, (b) Brundtland Report, (c) Sustainable Development Goals, (d) Stockholm Conference
Options:
(1) d, b, a, c
(2) c, b, a, d
(3) a, b, c, d
(4) d, c, b, a

Question 25

Question: Match List I with List II:
List I: (a) SAARC, (b) ASEAN, (c) OPEC, (d) EU
List II: (i) Promote regional peace in South Asia, (ii) Coordinate petroleum policies, (iii) Political and Economic integration of Europe, (iv) Economic growth in South-East Asia
Options:
(1) a – i, b – iv, c – ii, d – iii
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv

Question 26

Question: Match the following:
List I: (a) Pritilata Waddedar, (b) Suhasini Ganguly, (c) Kalpana Datta, (d) Toru Dutt
List II: (i) Member of Surya Sen’s Revolutionary group, (ii) A Bengali poet and translator, (iii) Participated in Chittagong Armoury Raid, (iv) Involved in armed attack on the Bahartali European Club
Options:
(1) a – iv, b – iii, c – i, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
(4) a – ii, b – i, c – iii, d – iv

Question 27

Question: The two forms of taxes imposed upon the people during Shivaji’s rule ______.
(i) Chauth, (ii) Sardeshmukhi, (iii) Swarajya, (iv) Hoon
Options:
(1) (i) and (ii)
(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

Question 28

Question: Choose the correct option in which the names of the Dewans of Mysore are arranged in proper chronological order.
Options:
(1) N. Madhava Rao, V.P. Madhava Rao, Mirza Ismail, Visvesvaraya M.
(2) V.P. Madhava Rao, N. Madhava Rao, Visvesvaraya M., Mirza Ismail
(3) N. Madhava Rao, Visvesvaraya M., Mirza Ismail, V.P. Madhava Rao
(4) V.P. Madhava Rao, Visvesvaraya M., Mirza Ismail, N. Madhava Rao

Question 29

Question: Who among the following commissioners was responsible for the starting of coffee plantation in Mysore and Coorg provinces?
Options:
(1) John Briggs
(2) Mark Cubbon
(3) Lewin Bowring
(4) Richard Meade

Question 30

Question: Arrange the following events in chronological order.
(i) Launching of Individual Satyagraha.
(ii) Gandhiji was elected as the President of Indian National Congress.
(iii) Establishment of UGC.
(iv) Withdrawal of Partition of Bengal.
Options:
(1) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)
(2) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(3) (iv), (ii), (i), (iii)
(4) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)

Question 31

Question: The Indian Statesman who said, “Those who do not know History will be condemned to repeat it” was:
Options:
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) Romesh Chunder Dutt
(3) Radha Kumud Mukherjee
(4) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Question 32

Question: The English East India Company by 1616 had factories in Western India at:
Options:
(1) Surat, Ahmedabad and Broach
(2) Masulipatnam, Petapoli and Broach
(3) Ahmedabad, Surat and Malabar
(4) Petapoli, Masulipatnam and Malabar

Question 33

Question: Match List – I with List – II:
List I: (a) Hind Swaraj, (b) White Man’s Burden, (c) Orientalism, (d) Power and Knowledge
List II: (i) Michael Foucault, (ii) M.K. Gandhi, (iii) Rudyard Kipling, (iv) Edward Said
Options:
(1) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(2) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(3) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i

Question 34

Question: Arrange the following wars in correct chronological order:
(i) Battle of Wandiwash, (ii) Battle at Sriramgapatna, (iii) First Anglo-Mysore War, (iv) Second Anglo-Mysore War
Options:
(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
(2) (iii), (iv), (i), (ii)
(3) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Question 35

Question: Consider the following statements:
Mahayanists:
(i) Deviated from the original teachings of Buddha.
(ii) Sought individual salvation through self-discipline and meditation.
(iii) Believed in the heavenliness of Buddha and bodhisattva and worshipped their images.
(iv) Developed two Chief Philosophical systems, the Madhyamika and the Yogachara.
Options:
(1) (i), (ii) and (iii) are True
(2) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are True
(3) (i), (iii) and (iv) are True
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv) are True

Question 36

Question: Identify the cities founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Options:
(1) Delhi and Lahore
(2) Topra and Meerut
(3) Panipat and Sikandra
(4) Fatehabad and Hisar

Question 37

Question: Match the following.
List-I: (a) Kirtivarma, (b) Sridharacharya, (c) Nagavarma II, (d) Nagachandra
List-II: (i) Jataka Tilaka, (ii) Kavyavalokana, (iii) Mallinatha Purana, (iv) Govaidya
Options:
(1) a – i, b – ii, c – iii, d – iv
(2) a – iv, b – iii, c – ii, d – i
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
(4) a – iv, b – i, c – ii, d – iii

Question 38

Question: Complete the series: 64, 66, 136, 414, ______, 8330
Options:
(1) 1624
(2) 1644
(3) 1664
(4) 1824

Question 39

Question: If ‘YEARLY’ is coded as ‘BVZIOB’, then how ‘ANNUAL’ will be coded?
Options:
(1) ZFMOMM
(2) ZNNFZA
(3) ZMMFZO
(4) XCADGF

Question 40

Question: Speed of Deepak and Vinod are in the ratio of 19:12 respectively. If speed of Vinod is 84 km/hr, then what will be the speed of Deepak?
Options:
(1) 114 km/hr
(2) 117 km/hr
(3) 126 km/hr
(4) 133 km/hr

Question 41

Question: A bag has Rs. 785 in the denomination of Rs. 2, Rs. 5 and Rs. 10 coins. The coins are in the ratio of 6:9:10. How many coins of Rs. 5 are in the bag?
Options:
(1) 60
(2) 12
(3) 45
(4) 24

Question 42

Question: A person purchases a notebook from a supplier at Rs. 12 each for 30 notebooks. He sells those notebooks at Rs. 15 each for 20 notebooks and remaining notebooks for Rs. 37.50 each. Find his profit percent.
Options:
(1) 87.5%
(2) 76.4%
(3) 79.2%
(4) 83.3%

Question 43

Question: The average expenditure of Raju for January to June is Rs. 8400 and he spends Rs. 2400 in January and Rs. 3000 in July. What is his average expenditure for the months of February to July?
Options:
(1) Rs. 8400
(2) Rs. 8500
(3) Rs. 7800
(4) Rs. 6800

Question 44

Question: From the following venn diagram, find how many foreign coaches who have turned professionals were never a player as per the given diagram.
Options:
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 10

Question 45

Question: Match the following:
(a) Vegetables, fruits, apples
(b) Boys, girls, students
(c) Even natural numbers, odd natural numbers, Irrational numbers
(d) Quadrilateral, rectangle, square
Options:
(1) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii

Question 46

Question: A person goes 40 Km North, turns right and goes 80 Km, turns right again and goes 30 Km. In the end, he turns right again and goes 80 Km. How far is he from his starting point if he goes straight ahead another 50 Km and turns left to his last 10 Km?
Options:
(1) 30 Km
(2) 50 Km
(3) 45 Km
(4) 40 Km

Question 47

Question: A stadium with 4 exits can evacuate 100 people every 2 minutes through each exit. If a fire alert is raised when there are 6500 people and crowd panic sets in, after 32 minutes how many people are at the risk of stampede?
Options:
(1) 250
(2) 200
(3) 150
(4) 100

Question 48

Question: Two pipes P and Q can fill a tank in 20 minutes and 25 minutes respectively. Both the pipes are opened together, but after 5 minutes, pipe Q is turned off. What is the total time required to fill the tank?
Options:
(1) 5 minutes
(2) 11 minutes
(3) 16 minutes
(4) 15 minutes

Question 49

Question: A boy went in search of his father. He went 90 meters in the East before turning to his right. He went 20 meters before turning to his right again to look for his father at his uncle’s place 30 meters from this point. His father was not there. From here he went 100 meters to the North before meeting his father in a street. How far did the son meet his father from starting point?
Options:
(1) 80 meters
(2) 100 meters
(3) 140 meters
(4) 260 meters

Question 50

Question: Find the value of 12+12+12+…12+12+12+…​​​
Options:
(1) 4
(2) -4
(3) 3
(4) -3

Question 51

Question: Consider the following statements related to Rashtriya Vigyan Puraskar Awards.
(a) They are the National Awards in the field of Science, Technology and Innovation
(b) The awards are given in four categories viz. Vigyan Ratna, Vigyan Shri, Vigyan Yuva Shanti-Swarup Bhatnagar and Vigyan Team
(c) The awards are given in 13 domains
(d) The Award Ceremony for all categories of awards will be held on 28th February (National Science Day) every year
Options:
(1) All of them
(2) Only three
(3) Only two
(4) Only one

Question 52

Question: Consider the following statements related to ‘Gati Shakti Cargo Terminal’ (GCT).
(a) This was launched for the development of additional terminals for handling rail cargo
(b) GCTs are being developed by private players and can be developed on non-Railway land or fully/partially on Railway land
(c) Features of GCTs are simplified application and approval process, no departmental charges and no Land License Fees etc.
(d) GCTs in Karnataka are Hirenanduru, Wadi and Hanakere.
Options:
(1) Only d
(2) Only a and c
(3) Only b
(4) None of the above

Question 53

Question: Consider the following statements related to Commonwealth Games.
(a) This event is organized once in five years
(b) India has participated in the Commonwealth Games for the first time in 1934
(c) India has officially won the bid to host the Centenary Commonwealth Games in 2030 at Ahmedabad
(d) India has hosted this event twice during 1982 and 2010 both at New Delhi
Options:
(1) All of them
(2) Only three
(3) Only two
(4) Only one

Question 54

Question: Consider the following statements related to Karnataka Traditional Migratory Shepherds (Welfare Measures and Protection Against Atrocities) Act, 2025.
(a) Providing an identity card to every beneficiary
(b) Welfare schemes like life insurance, skill upgradation, marketing support and monetary compensation in the case of loss of livestock
(c) Setting up the Traditional Migratory Shepherds Welfare Fund and Board
(d) Punishment for denial of access of a traditional migratory shepherd to any public property, Government land or forest land (excluding reserve forest) without any lawful basis
Options:
(1) a, b, c and d
(2) Only c and d
(3) Only a and b
(4) Only b

Question 55

Question: Recently “Scheme to promote manufacturing of Sintered Rare Earth Permanent Magnets (REPM)” was in the news. Consider the following statements.
(a) This scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2025
(b) Total duration of the scheme will be 3 years from the date of award, including a 1 year gestation period for setting up an integrated REPM manufacturing facility and 2 years for incentive disbursement on the sale of REPM.
(c) It will strengthen the domestic REPM manufacturing ecosystem and enhance competitiveness in the global markets.
(d) It also supports the nation’s Net Zero 2050 commitment.
Options:
(1) All of them are correct
(2) Only three statements are correct
(3) Only two statements are correct
(4) Only one statement is correct

Question 56

Question: What is “Meghraj” related to?
Options:
(1) A GSLV satellite developed by ISRO for accurate weather forecasting in order to predict cloud burst and heavy rainfall events.
(2) A technology developed by India Meteorological Department’ (IMD) for making artificial rainfall (cloud seeding) during severe drought periods.
(3) An initiative to provide ICT services via Cloud to all Government Departments at the Centre and States/UTs, promoting the cloud ecosystem nationwide
(4) An indigenously developed Inter Continental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) that can be launched from submarines.

Question 57

Question: With reference to the implementation of the four Labour Codes that came into force from November 2025, consider the following statements.
(a) Mandatory appointment letters to all workers
(b) Social security coverage to all the workers including gig and platform workers
(c) Free annual health check-up to all workers above the age of 50 years by the employer
(d) Women are permitted to work at night and in all types of work across all establishments, subject to their consent and required safety measures.
(e) PAN-India single license and single return.
Options:
(1) All the statements are correct
(2) Only four statements are correct
(3) Only three statements are correct
(4) Only two statements are correct

Question 58

Question: Consider the Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine, 2025.
(a) This was awarded by the Nobel Assembly at Pasteur Institute
(b) The award was given to a group of 3 Scientists
(c) Contribution was discovery of Peripheral immune tolerance and identification of Regulatory T Cells and FOXP3 genes
(d) The contribution will help in treating diseases like Cardiac arrest and Obesity.
Options:
(1) All of them
(2) Only three of them
(3) Only two of them
(4) Only one of them

Question 59

Question: Match the following:
List-I: (a) International Migration Outlook, (b) Global Education Monitoring Report, (c) World Development Report, (d) World Economic Outlook, (e) World Investment Report
List-II: (i) UNESCO, (ii) OECD, (iii) IMF, (iv) UNCTAD, (v) World Bank
Options:
(1) a – v, b – iv, c – iii, d – ii, e – i
(2) a – ii, b – i, c – v, d – iii, e – iv
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – v, e – iii
(4) a – v, b – iv, c – ii, d – i, e – iii

Question 60

Question: Consider the following statements related to ‘Project Sea Bird’ and choose the correct answer.
Options:
(1) It is a Naval Infrastructures project aimed at creation of a naval base at Karwar.
(2) It is a project for the conservation of white-breasted sea eagle in Dakshina Kannada district which is at the verge of extinction.
(3) It is a welfare project for the development of fishermen community in the coastal districts of Karnataka.
(4) It is a project for the conservation of coral reefs in the Udupi district of Karnataka.

Question 61

Question: Match the following:
List-I: (a) Greater Hesaraghatta grassland, (b) Apsarakonda-Mugali marine area, (c) Kokkare Bellur, (d) Anshi, (e) Hogrekan
List-II: (i) Wildlife Sanctuary, (ii) Conservation Reserve, (iii) National Park, (iv) Biodiversity Heritage Site, (v) Community Reserve
Options:
(1) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – v, e – i
(2) a – iii, b – v, c – i, d – ii, e – iv
(3) a – ii, b – i, c – v, d – iii, e – iv
(4) a – ii, b – iv, c – i, d – iii, e – v

Question 62

Question: Which of the following statements regarding Kumari Kamala, a renowned Bharatanatyam artist is incorrect?
Options:
(1) She was trained under Nazhuvoor Ramaiah Pillai
(2) She was awarded with Padma Vibhushan award in 1970
(3) She was the recipient of US National Heritage Fellowship
(4) She also acted in almost 100 Tamil, Hindi, Telugu and Kannada films

Question 63

Question: The concept of ‘Tragedy of the Commons’ was first introduced by:
Options:
(1) Rachel Carson
(2) Garrett Hardin
(3) Aldo Leopold
(4) Elinor Ostrom

Question 64

Question: Expand KSIIDC.
Options:
(1) Karnataka State Industrial and Income Development Company
(2) Karnataka State Income and Infrastructure Distribution Corporation
(3) Karnataka State Industrial and Infrastructure Development Corporation
(4) Karnataka State Industrial and Infrastructure Distribution Company

Question 65

Question: Which of the following is/are not the component/s of land reforms of independent India?
(a) Abolition of the intermediaries
(b) Green Revolution Initiatives
(c) Fixing ceilings on landholdings
(d) Consolidation of landholdings
Options:
(1) a and b only
(2) b only
(3) b and c only
(4) b and d only

Question 66

Question: In 1957, to study and report on agricultural acts which were in existence, under whose chairmanship a committee was constituted?
Options:
(1) S. Nijalingappa
(2) B. D. Jatti
(3) J. C. Kumarappa
(4) Devaraj Urs

Question 67

Question: According to the Karnataka Land Reforms Act of 1974, land under lease is classified as ______.
Options:
(1) ABC and DM
(2) ABC and DE
(3) KAR and TAK
(4) KAR and LAS

Question 68

Question: The ‘Bhoochetana’ mission in Karnataka is implemented in partnership with which international research institute, focusing on soil health and farm productivity?
Options:
(1) World Bank
(2) International Crop Research Institute for the Semi Arid Tropics (ICRISAT)
(3) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
(4) International Rice Research Institute (IRR)

Question 69

Question: Under the Right to Education (RTE) Act in Karnataka, what is the maximum annual family income eligible for admission to a private school?
Options:
(1) Rs. 1.5 Lakh
(2) Rs. 2.5 Lakh
(3) Rs. 3.5 Lakh
(4) Rs. 4.5 Lakh

Question 70

Question: Match the following art forms with the state of origin:
List-I: (a) Madhubani, (b) Pattachitra, (c) Phad, (d) Gond
List-II: (i) Odisha, (ii) Madhya Pradesh, (iii) Rajasthan, (iv) Bihar
Options:
(1) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
(2) a – i, b – iii, c – ii, d – iv
(3) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
(4) a – iv, b – ii, c – iii, d – i

Question 71

Question: The first and the last college to be started by the Nizamshahi in Kalyana Karnataka region was:
Options:
(1) Hamdard College, Raichur
(2) Intermediate College at Kalaburagi
(3) S.B. College at Bidar
(4) Nutan Vidyakaya at Kalaburagi

Question 72

Question: Doddabasavanna temple in Bengaluru was built by:
Options:
(1) Kempe Gowda I
(2) Jaya Gowda
(3) Kempe Gowda II
(4) Dodda Veerappa Gowda

Question 73

Question: Which of the Indian states was in news recently for declaring as the first ‘Indian state free of extreme poverty’?
Options:
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) Kerala
(3) Karnataka
(4) Tripura

Question 74

Question: Consider the following goods and services.
(a) Indian National Flag
(b) Ultra High Temperature (UHT) milk
(c) Pencil
(d) Individual health insurance premium
(e) Drip irrigation system and sprinklers
How many of the above items attract 0% GST?
Options:
(1) All of them
(2) Only four of them
(3) Only three of them
(4) Only two of them

Question 75

Question: Indian Economic Survey Report 2024 – 25 spoke about Gini coefficient. What is Gini coefficient?
Options:
(1) It is a measure of inequality in consumption expenditure
(2) It is a measure of inequality in sex ratio
(3) It is a measure of inequality in urban and rural unemployment
(4) It is a measure of inequality in Rural health centres among states

Question 76

Question: What are the key objectives of PM Dhan Dhaanya Krishi Yojana?
(a) Reducing dependency on agriculture
(b) Encouraging crop diversification and sustainable agricultural practices
(c) Augmenting post-harvest storage capacity at panchayat and block levels
(d) Improving irrigation infrastructure for reliable water access
(e) Enabling greater access to short-term and long-term agricultural credit for farmers.
Options:
(1) All the statements are correct
(2) Only four statements are correct
(3) Only three statements are correct
(4) Only two statements are correct

Question 77

Question: Match the two Lists and indicate the correct option from the choices given below:
List-I: (a) Bonds, (b) Debentures, (c) Shares, (d) Futures
List-II: (i) Charge on the assets of the company, (ii) Derivatives, (iii) Specific maturity date, (iv) Voting rights
Options:
(1) a – iii, b – i, c – iv, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – ii, c – iv, d – i
(3) a – iv, b – i, c – iii, d – ii
(4) a – ii, b – i, c – iv, d – iii

Question 78

Question:
Assertion (A): Zero Population Growth (ZPG) is a demographic balance when the number of people in population does not increase or decrease.
Reason (R): A country is said to attain ZPG when the total number of births and the number of immigrants into a country is equal to the total number of deaths plus the number of people who immigrate out of the country.
Options:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation for (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(4) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct

Question 79

Question: Match the following urban mission with their primary focus.
List-I: (a) AMRUT, (b) NMSH, (c) URMP
List-II: (i) Reviving and maintaining rivers sustainability, (ii) Water and sewerage infrastructure, (iii) Low carbon urban development
Options:
(1) a – i, b – iii, c – ii
(2) a – ii, b – iii, c – i
(3) a – i, b – ii, c – iii
(4) a – iii, b – ii, c – i

Question 80

Question: Which of the following is/are correct with regards to NITI AAYOG?
(a) NITI AAYOG is a replacement of the Planning Commission
(b) NITI AAYOG is a continuation of the Planning Commission
(c) NITI AAYOG is a policy think tank of the Government of India
(d) President of India is the Chairperson of NITI AAYOG
Options:
(1) a and b are correct
(2) a, b, c and d are correct
(3) a and c are correct
(4) a, b and d are correct

Question 81

Question: While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that:
(a) The food is not cooked completely
(b) The fuel is not burning completely
(c) The fuel is wet
(d) The fuel is burning completely
Options:
(1) (a) and (c) only
(2) (b) only
(3) (a) and (b) only
(4) (d) only

Question 82

Question: Royal solvent is used to dissolve noble metals like gold and platinum. Aqua regia is a mixture of:
Options:
(1) Concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated Nitric acid in the ratio 1:3
(2) Concentrated Hydrochloric acid and concentrated Nitric acid in the ratio 3:1
(3) Concentrated Sulphuric acid and concentrated Hydrochloric acid in the ratio 1:1
(4) Concentrated Sulphuric acid and concentrated Nitric acid in the ratio 1:1

Question 83

Question: Insectivorous plants grow in swampy soils, which are deficient in:
Options:
(1) Sulphur
(2) Phosphorus
(3) Nitrogen
(4) Potassium

Question 84

Question: This cell organelle plays important role in respiration and has specialized structure called cristae found in:
(a) Inner membrane of Golgi complex
(b) Outer membrane of Chloroplast
(c) Inner membrane of Mitochondria
(d) Outer membrane of Vacuoles
Options:
(1) a and b only
(2) c only
(3) b and c only
(4) d only

Question 85

Question:
Statement-I: To provide genetic variation in population, mitosis cell division is not essential.
Statement-II: To provide genetic variation in population, meiosis cell division is essential.
Options:
(1) Statement-I and II are correct
(2) Both statement-I and II are incorrect
(3) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct

Question 86

Question: Which of the following is/are not the example of corrosion?
(i) Silver left for few hours in air turns black
(ii) Copper turning blue or green when exposed to air/H₂O for long time
(iii) Iron turning brown when exposed to moisture for long time
(iv) White colour of anhydrous copper sulphate turns blue on exposing to water/moisture
Options:
(1) (i) and (iv)
(2) (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Question 87

Question: Match the given biomolecules in Column-I with the examples given in Column-II.
Column-I: (a) Carbohydrate, (b) Protein, (c) Hormone, (d) Vitamin
Column-II: (i) Riboflavin, (ii) Ribose, (iii) Keratine, (iv) Progesterone
Options:
(1) a – i, b – iii, c – iv, d – ii
(2) a – iii, b – iv, c – ii, d – i
(3) a – ii, b – iii, c – iv, d – i
(4) a – iv, b – ii, c – i, d – iii

Question 88

Question: Consider the following statements:
(a) The refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the cornea
(b) The pupil regulates and controls the amount of light entering the eye
(c) The eye lens forms a virtual image of the object on retina.
Options:
(1) a and b only
(2) b and c only
(3) a and c only
(4) a, b and c

Question 89

Question: The device used to test the charge of a body is:
Options:
(1) Electron microscope
(2) Periscope
(3) Electroscope
(4) Kaleidoscope

Question 90

Question: Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Class of Drug – Example:
(a) Analgesics – Aspirin
(b) Antibiotics – Tetracycline
(c) Tranquilizer – Alprazolam
(d) Antidepressants – Chloroquine
Options:
(1) a and b only
(2) a, b and c
(3) a and c only
(4) a and d only

Question 91

Question: Who declared in the British Parliament in February, 1947 that, “British would quit India very soon”?
Options:
(1) Sir Mac Donald
(2) William Gladstone
(3) Clement Attlee
(4) Pitt the Elder

Question 92

Question: Read the following statements:
In humans,
(a) Melatonin hormone plays an important role in sleep-wake cycle
(b) Prolonged hyperglycemia leads to diabetes mellitus
(c) Deficiency of thyroid hormone leads to acromegaly
(d) Thymosin hormone provides immunity
Options:
(1) a, b and c only
(2) b, c and d only
(3) a, b and d only
(4) a, c and d only

Question 93

Question: An ice cube is floating on the surface of water. How will the water level be affected by melting of this ice cube?
Options:
(1) Water level will be raised
(2) Water level will go down
(3) Water level will remain the same
(4) Water level will first rise up, then it will go down

Question 94

Question: A hole is drilled in a copper plate. As the copper plate is heated,
Options:
(1) the size of the hole increases
(2) the size of the hole decreases
(3) the size of the hole does not change
(4) the size of the hole will increase only if the hole is circular

Question 95

Question: Which of the following waves are used in ECG?
Options:
(1) Ultrasonic waves
(2) Infrasound waves
(3) X-rays
(4) Infrared waves

Question 96

Question: Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct with respect to Kalyana Karnataka Region (KKR)?
(a) Every year ‘Kalyana Karnataka Liberation Day’ is celebrated on September 16.
(b) The KKR comprises 08 districts.
(c) The region formerly known as ‘Hyderabad Karnataka’ was renamed as ‘Kalyana Karnataka’ in 2019.
Options:
(1) Only a is correct
(2) Only a and b are correct
(3) Only c is correct
(4) a, b and c are correct

Question 97

Question: In 2025-26 Karnataka Budget, it was announced that new labs aligned with Industry 4.0 technology based syllabus will be established at KGTTI centres located in which of the following cities?
(a) Bengaluru, (b) Kalaburugi, (c) Mangaluru, (d) Dharwad, (e) Belagavi
Options:
(1) a, b and e
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a, b, c, and e

Question 98

Question: Which of the following statements regarding ‘Ksheera Bhagya’ Scheme of Karnataka is/are incorrect?
(a) It was inaugurated on 01.08.2013
(b) Under this programme, every child of government and aided schools from 1st to 10th standard is getting milk
(c) Under this programme, every child of private schools from 1st to 5th standard is getting milk
Options:
(1) a and c are incorrect
(2) a and b are incorrect
(3) Only c is incorrect
(4) Only b is incorrect

Question 99

Question: India’s first dedicated ‘Quantum City’ will be established at:
Options:
(1) Hesaraghatta, Bengaluru
(2) Cyberabad, Hyderabad
(3) Guindy, Chennai
(4) Sector 62, Noida

Question 100

Question: Expand KSTePS.
Options:
(1) Kannada Science and Technology Papers Society
(2) Karnataka State Technology Promotion Society
(3) Karnataka Science and Technology Promoters Society
(4) Karnataka Science and Technology Promotion Society.